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Last edited 4/14/2009 10:23:00 AM
I have not yet written this article. Meanwhile look at the Wikipedia article on function inverses.
The number 1/2 is
the "multiplicative inverse" of the number 2 because their product is
1. A similar relationship can hold between functions,
but because functional composition is not normally commutative, one has to specify which way the composite is taken.
[ label:
invdef] If F:A→B and G:B→A, then G is a left inverse to F, and F is a right inverse
to G, if
|
[label:inveq] |
(0.24) |
If G is both a left
and a right inverse to F, in other words if both Equation [inveq] and
|
FøG=\idB |
(0.25) |
hold, then G is an inverse to F.
A function that has
an inverse is said to be invertible.
[ label: I] t
follows from the definition that if G is an inverse to F, then F is an inverse
to G.
[ label: [ label:
]] otherways The definition of inverse function can be expressed in
other ways equivalent to Definition [invdef] .
[ label:
firstway] G is the inverse of F if and only if for all aA, G(F(a))=a and
for all b
B, F(G(b))=b. (Both equations must hold.)
G is the inverse of
F if and only if the following diagrams commute:
|
[label:iddags] |
(0.26) |
Let
F:{1,3,5}→{2,3,4} be the function that takes 1 to 3, 3 to 4 and 5 to 2. Then the function
G:{2,3,4}→{1,3,5} that takes 2 to 5, 3 to
1 and 4 to 3 is the inverse of F. (And F is the inverse of G.)
Example
[invexs] ( [threeinv] ) above says that the squaring function is a left inverse to the square root function:
squaring the positive
square root gives you what you started with. It is not the inverse, however: taking
the square root of the square won't give you the number you started with if it
is negative. On the other hand, the cubing function is the inverse of the cube
root function.
A function can have more than one left inverse
(Problem [manyleftinv] ) but not more than one inverse:
Theorem: uniqinvUniqueness
Theorem for InversesIf F:A→B has an inverse G:B→A, then G is the only inverse
to F.
Proof: The proof uses the
definition of inverse, Theorem [compassoc] and Example [idfax] : If
H:B→A is another inverse of F, then
|
H=Hø\idB
=Hø(FøG)=(HøF)øG=\idA øG=G |
END PROOF
The fact that if a function has an inverse, it has only one, means that we
can give the inverse a name: The inverse of F, if it exists, is denoted
F\inverse.
The uniqueness
theorem also means we have a rule of inference: Given F:A→B and G:B→A,
|
[label:invinf] |
(0.27) |
[ label:
whinve] Which of the following functions
have inverses? If it has one, give the inverse (by describing its graph or by a
formula).
F:{1,2,3,4}→{3,4,5,6},
with 1‖→3, 2‖→4, 3‖→6, and 4‖→5.
G:{1,2,3,4}→{3,4,5,6,7},
with 1‖→3, 2‖→4, 3‖→6, and 4‖→5.
H:{1,2,3,4}→{3,4,5,6}
with 1‖→3, 2‖→5, 3‖→6, and 4‖→5.
n‖→2n:N→N.
n‖→n+1:N→N.
n‖→n+1:Z→Z.
n‖→(1/n):N-{0}→R.
K:{1,2,3,4,5}→{1,2,3}
with K(n)= floor ((n+1)/2).
Answer: Only (a) and (f)
have inverses. For (a) the inverse is F\inverse:{3,4,5,6}→{1,2,3,4} with graph
({<3,1>,<4,2>,<6,3>,<5,4>)}. For (f) it is
n‖→n-1:Z→Z.
Which of the functions in Exercise [whinve] have (a) left
inverses, (b) right inverses? Answer: All
except (c) and (h) have left inverses. (a), (f) and (h) have right inverses.
Show that if a function G has an inverse F, then it has only one left
inverse and that is F. Answer: If
L is a left inverse of G:A→B, then for any x in the domain
of G, L=Lø\idB =Lø(GøF)=(LøG)øF=\idA øF=F.
[ label:
manyleftinv] Let I: R+ →R denote the inclusion function. Show that I has infinitely many left inverses.
The inverse of the composite of two
functions which have inverses is the composite of the
inverses, only in the reverse order:
Theorem: shoesockThe
Shoe-Sock TheoremIf F:A→B and G:B→C both have inverses, then
|
(GøF)\inverse=F\inverseøG\inverse
|
The name comes from
the fact that the inverse of putting on your socks and then putting on your
shoes is taking off your shoes and then taking off your socks.
Proof: To prove the
Shoe-Sock Theorem, we will prove that
|
[label:shs1] |
(0.28) |
and
|
[label:shs2] |
(0.29) |
and then apply
Rule ( [invinf] ), page . To prove Equation [shs1] , we note
that the following diagram commutes: the left and right triangles are the
diagrams in Figure ( [iddags] ), and the middle triangle is the left
triangle in Figure ( [iddaga] ).
|
A \ar[r]^F \ar[d]
\idA B\ar[r ]G \ar[d]|\idB \ar[dl]| F-1
C\ar[dl]| G-1 AB\ar[l ] F-1 | |
(0.30) |
Equation
[shs2] is proved similarly. END PROOF
Another fact with a
similar proof (left as an exercise) is:
Theorem: invinvIf F has an
inverse, then (F\inverse)\inverse=F.
Another way of
saying this is that a function is the
inverse of its own inverse.
Prove Theorem
[invinv] .
A final fact about
inverses is the very important:
Theorem: invbijCharacterization
of invertible functionsA function F:A→B has
an inverse if and only if it is a bijection.
The importance of
Theorem [invbij] lies in the fact that having an inverse is defined in
terms of functional composition but being a bijection
is defined in terms of application of the function
to an element of its domain. Any time a
mathematical fact connects two such differently-described ideas it is probably
useful.
Proof: I will go through
the proof in some detail since it ties together several of the ideas of this
chapter. We have to prove an equivalence,
which means two implications.
First we show that
if F has an inverse then it is a bijection.
Suppose F has an inverse. We must show that it is injective and surjective.
To show that it is injective, suppose
F(a)=F(a'). Then
|
a=F\inverse(F(a))=F\inverse(F(a'))=a'
|
(The first and last equations follow from [otherways] [firstway] and the
middle equation from the substitution property, Theorem [subprop2] .) So
F is injective.
To show F is surjective, let bB. We must find an element a
A for which
F(a)=b. The element is F\inverse(b), since F(F\inverse(b))=b. Thus F is bijective.
Now we must show
that if F is bijective, then it
has an inverse. Suppose F is bijective.
We must define a function G:B→A which is the inverse of F. Let bB. Then, since F is surjective,
there is an element a
A for which F(a)=b. Since F is injective
there is exactly one such a. Let G(b)=a. Since F(a)=b, that says that
G(F(a))=a, which is half of what we need to show to prove (using Definition
[invdef] ) that G=F\inverse. The other thing needed is that F(G(b))=b. But by
definition of G, G(b) is the element a for which F(a)=b, so F(G(b))=b. That
finishes the proof. END PROOF
The second part of
the proof says this: If F(a)=b, then F\inverse(b)=a, and if F\inverse(b)=a,
then F(a)=b.
You might experiment
with proving the contrapositives of
the two implications in the
preceding proof; some people find them easier to understand.
Write a formula for
the inverse of each of these bijections.
x‖→ x2 :
R+ → R+ .
x‖→x-1:R→R.
x‖→2x:R→R.
x‖→(1/x):R→R.
Answer:
x‖→x.
x‖→x+1.
x‖→x/2.
This one is its own
inverse.
Prove that a function has a left inverse if and only if it is injective.
Prove that a
function has a right inverse if and only if it is surjective.
Give a right inverse
of the function GCD : N+ × N+ → N+ . (You are being asked to give the right
inverse explicitly, not merely show it exists.) Answer: Let F:N→N×N be the function defined by F(n)=(n,n). Then
GCD (F(n))= GCD (n,n)=n=\idN (n) so F is a right inverse of GCD . (There are
many others.)
Show that GCD : N+ ×
N+ → N+ does not have a left inverse. Answer: Suppose that GCD has a
left inverse H:N→N×N. Then (1,2)=H( GCD (1,2))=H(1)=H( GCD (1,1